# Regularization

**Watch this.**** Also explains about ISO surfaces, lp norm, sparseness.**

**(what is?) ****Regularization (in linear regression****) - to find the best model we define a loss or cost function that describes how well the model fits the data, and try minimize it. For a complex model that fits even the noise, i.e., over fitted, we penalize it by adding a complexity term that would add BIGGER LOSS for more complex models.**

**Bigger lambda -> high complexity models (deg 3) are ruled out, more punishment.****Smaller lambda -> models with high training error are rules out. I.e., linear model on non linear data?, i.e., deg 1.****Optimal is in between (deg 2)**

**(Difference between? And features of) ****L1 vs L2**** as loss function and regularization.**

**L1 - moves the regressor faster, feature selection by sparsing coefficients (zeroing them), with sparse algorithms it is computationally efficient, with others no, so use L2.****L2 - moves slower, doesn't sparse, computationally efficient.**

**Why does L1 lead to sparity?**

**L1 & L2 regularization add constraints to the optimization problem. The curve H0 is the hypothesis. The solution is a set of points where the H0 meets the constraints.****In L2 the the hypothesis is tangential to the ||w||_2. The point of intersection has both x1 and x2 components. On the other hand, in L1, due to the nature of ||w||_1, the viable solutions are limited to the corners of the axis, i.e., x1. So that the value of x2 = 0. This means that the solution has eliminated the role of x2 leading to sparsity.****This can be extended to a higher dimensions and you can see why L1 regularization leads to solutions to the optimization problem where many of the variables have value 0.****In other words, L1 regularization leads to sparsity.****Also considered feature selection - although with LibSVM the recommendation is to feature select prior to using the SVM and use L2 instead.**

**For simplicity, let's just consider the 1-dimensional case.****L2:****L2-regularized loss function F(x)=f(x)+Î»âˆ¥xâˆ¥^2 is smooth.****This means that the optimum is the stationary point (0-derivative point).****The stationary point of F can get very small when you increase Î», but it will still won't be 0 unless fâ€²(0)=0.****L1:****regularized loss function F(x)=f(x)+Î»âˆ¥xâˆ¥ is non-smooth, i.e., a min knee of 0.****It's not differentiable at 0.****Optimization theory says that the optimum of a function is either the point with 0-derivative or one of the irregularities (corners, kinks, etc.). So, it's possible that the optimal point of F is 0 even if 0 isn't the stationary point of f.****In fact, it would be 0 if Î» is large enough (stronger regularization effect). Below is a graphical illustration.**

**In multi-dimensional settings: if a feature is not important, the loss contributed by it is small and hence the (non-differentiable) regularization effect would turn it off.**

**Intuition + formulation, which is pretty good:**

**(****did not watch****) but here is andrew ng talks about cost functions.**

**L2 regularization ****equivalent to Gaussian prior**

**L1 regularization ****equivalent to a Laplacean Prior****(same link as above) - â€œSimilarly the relationship between L1 norm and the Laplace prior can be undestood in the same fashion. Take instead of a Gaussian prior, a Laplace prior combine it with your likelihood and take the logarithm.â€œ
****How does regularization look like in SVM**** - controlling â€˜Câ€™**

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